Practice Questions Bank

A patient has pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. This indicates:

A patient has pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L. This indicates:

A diabetic patient in DKA would most likely have:

In metabolic acidosis, the compensatory mechanism is:

A patient with prolonged vomiting would develop:

A patient has pH 7.35, PaCO2 60 mmHg, HCO3 32 mEq/L. This indicates:

Normal PaCO2 range is:

Normal HCO3 range is:

In the "ROME" mnemonic, what does "Metabolic Equal" mean?

Using Parkland Formula: A 70kg patient with 40% TBSA burns needs how much fluid in the first 8 hours?

A physician orders 1000 ml NS over 8 hours using a macro drip set (15 gtts/ml). The drip rate is:

For pediatric IV infusions, which drip set is preferred?

A child weighing 15 kg needs Amoxicillin 25 mg/kg/day in 3 divided doses. Each dose is:

When calculating Parkland formula, the time starts from:

A 50 kg patient with 25% TBSA burns. Total fluid for 24 hours using Parkland formula:

A patient on mechanical ventilation has a HIGH PRESSURE alarm. The FIRST action is:

LOW PRESSURE alarm on ventilator indicates:

A patient in cardiogenic shock would have:

Septic shock is characterized by:

Which IV fluid is preferred for burn resuscitation?

In MI management, which drug is given FIRST?

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in:

Beck's Triad (Hypotension, Muffled Heart Sounds, JVD) indicates:

The earliest sign of increased ICP is:

Cushing's Triad includes all EXCEPT:

In the GCS, "Decorticate posturing" scores:

A GCS score of 8 or below indicates:

In suspected cervical spine injury, airway is opened by:

A patient with facial burns has singed nasal hair and hoarse voice. Priority intervention:

First-line drug for Anaphylactic Shock:

A patient develops chest pain, tachycardia, and hypoxia after long bone fracture. Suspect:

In acute respiratory failure, SpO2 target for COPD patients is:

The antidote for Heparin overdose is:

Warfarin therapy is monitored by:

Therapeutic INR range for most conditions is:

Drug of choice for SVT is:

Digoxin should be held if heart rate is below:

Signs of Digoxin toxicity include all EXCEPT:

Therapeutic Digoxin level is:

Which electrolyte imbalance increases Digoxin toxicity risk?

Drug of choice for Eclampsia is:

Signs of Magnesium toxicity include all EXCEPT:

The antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity is:

Lithium therapeutic range is:

A patient on Lithium should maintain:

Atropine is used to treat:

First drug given in Asystole/PEA is:

Amiodarone is used for:

Which drug causes "Red Man Syndrome"?

Gentamicin toxicity affects:

The antidote for Warfarin overdose is:

A patient on Warfarin has INR of 5.0 with no bleeding. Management:

Peak action of Regular insulin is:

Peak action of NPH insulin is:

Insulin glargine (Lantus) is:

When mixing insulins, draw up:

The most common cause of Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH) is:

Active Management of Third Stage of Labor (AMTSL) includes all EXCEPT:

Normal duration of Second Stage of Labor in primigravida is:

Bishop Score is used to assess:

Drug of choice for PIH (Pregnancy-Induced Hypertension) seizure prophylaxis:

Apgar Score is assessed at:

A newborn with Apgar 4-6 requires:

Partograph ACTION LINE is crossed when cervical dilation is:

Which presentation is MOST favorable for vaginal delivery?

Cord prolapse management includes all EXCEPT:

First sign of placental separation is:

Minimum hemoglobin level for safe delivery is:

Oxytocin for PPH is given:

Bimanual compression of uterus is indicated for:

The drug contraindicated in hypertensive disorders of pregnancy:

ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) contains all EXCEPT:

Severe dehydration in a child is indicated by:

Plan C (severe dehydration) management includes:

WHO recommended Zinc supplementation for diarrhea is:

A child with weight-for-height <-3 SD has:

Mid-Upper Arm Circumference (MUAC) indicating Severe Acute Malnutrition is:

Vitamin A prophylaxis dose for a child 1-5 years is:

Bitot's spots indicate deficiency of:

Normal respiratory rate in a child 2 months to 1 year is:

Which vaccine is given at birth?

Pentavalent vaccine protects against:

Rotavirus vaccine is given at:

A child with fever, cough, and fast breathing has:

Danger signs in sick children include all EXCEPT:

Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended until:

An ECG shows absent P waves with irregularly irregular rhythm. This indicates:

ECG showing 'Sawtooth' pattern indicates:

Wide QRS complex with no P waves, regular rhythm at 180/min suggests:

Chaotic, irregular waveforms with no identifiable QRS complex indicates:

Flat line on ECG with no electrical activity is:

GREEN colored IV cannula (18G) is used for:

BLUE colored IV cannula (22G) is ideal for:

Chest X-ray showing 'Boot-shaped heart' is seen in:

X-ray showing 'Egg-on-side' appearance indicates:

Biphasic P wave in Lead II suggests:

The primary goal of Primary Health Care (PHC) is:

Which level of prevention includes immunization?

ASHA worker is responsible for all EXCEPT:

Population covered by one PHC (Primary Health Centre) in plain areas is:

Ante Natal Care (ANC) should include minimum:

Iron Folic Acid (IFA) supplementation during pregnancy is:

The main vector of Dengue fever is:

Chlorination of water requires free residual chlorine of:

WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding until:

Vitamin A prophylaxis is given every:

The crude birth rate of India (2020-21) is approximately:

Tertiary prevention aims to:

Hand hygiene is most important:

Standard precautions apply to:

Under Mission Indradhanush, full immunization is targeted by:

Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) provides:

Nikshay is a program for:

Current treatment regimen for new TB cases under NTEP is:

Ayushman Bharat - PM-JAY provides health coverage of:

POSHAN Abhiyaan targets reduction of:

DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course) means:

LaQshya program focuses on:

National Health Policy 2017 aims for health expenditure of:

In START Triage, a patient with respiratory rate >30 after positioning is tagged:

A patient who can walk in mass casualty is tagged:

Golden Hour in trauma refers to:

Primary Survey in trauma follows:

GCS score of 13-15 indicates:

First-line treatment for tension pneumothorax is:

Raccoon eyes and Battle's sign indicate:

Emergency tracheostomy is indicated when:

Fluid of choice for initial resuscitation in trauma is:

In CPR, compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult is:

First drug given in VF/Pulseless VT after CPR and shock is:

Defibrillation energy for adult VF using biphasic defibrillator is:

AVPU scale 'P' stands for:

In burn assessment, Rule of Nines assigns what percentage to one arm?

Major burn criteria includes:

Snakebite management - First aid includes all EXCEPT:

Anti-Snake Venom (ASV) is given:

Management of foreign body airway obstruction in conscious adult:

Heat stroke is characterized by:

Hypothermia is defined as core temperature below:

According to MHCA 2017, mental illness is defined as:

Right to Mental Health Care under MHCA 2017 includes all EXCEPT:

Advance Directive under MHCA 2017 allows:

Therapeutic range of Lithium is:

Lithium toxicity signs include all EXCEPT:

A patient on antipsychotics develops high fever, muscle rigidity, and altered consciousness. This is:

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) include all EXCEPT:

Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by:

Drug of choice for acute dystonia is:

Clozapine requires monitoring of:

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is most effective for:

Before ECT, which drug is given to prevent fractures?

Delusion is a disorder of:

Auditory hallucinations are most commonly seen in:

First-rank symptoms of Schizophrenia include all EXCEPT:

Suicide risk assessment should be done for:

Strong risk factor for suicide is:

Delirium is characterized by:

Sundowning phenomenon is seen in:

Therapeutic communication technique includes:

Informed consent must include:

A nurse witnesses a colleague stealing medication. The ethical duty is to:

Patient confidentiality can be breached when:

Autonomy in healthcare means:

Non-maleficence principle means:

A dying patient refuses treatment. The nurse should:

Documentation in nursing should be:

Negligence in nursing requires proving:

Under Consumer Protection Act, hospitals are:

Nursing registration is mandatory under:

The nurse's primary obligation is to:

Which act governs organ transplantation in India?

Brain death certification requires:

PCPNDT Act prohibits:

A nurse can refuse to participate in a procedure if:

Informed consent must include all EXCEPT:

A patient refuses blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. The nurse should:

HIPAA primarily protects:

The most appropriate study design to establish causality is:

In a case-control study, we calculate:

Type I error occurs when:

P-value < 0.05 indicates:

Mean, Median, and Mode are measures of:

Standard Deviation measures:

Sensitivity of a test refers to:

Specificity of a test refers to:

Sample size calculation depends on all EXCEPT:

Random sampling ensures:

Qualitative research method includes:

Reliability of a research instrument means:

Validity of a research instrument means:

Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) integrates:

Highest level of evidence in EBP hierarchy is:

Chi-square test is used for:

Normal distribution curve is:

Correlation coefficient (r) ranges from:

Ethical principle requiring participant consent in research is:

Institutional Ethics Committee (IEC) reviews research proposals to ensure:

Incidence rate measures:

Prevalence is calculated as:

The 95% Confidence Interval indicates:

Bias in research can be minimized by:

Confounding variable is:

Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is:

Intention-to-Treat analysis includes:

A pilot study is conducted to:

PICO framework in EBP stands for:

Meta-analysis is:

Positive Predictive Value (PPV) indicates:

The Hawthorne effect refers to:

A COPD patient on 2L O2 has SpO2 of 91%. The nurse should:

A burn patient in first 24 hours is at highest risk for:

The Rule of Nines assigns what percentage to an adult's entire back?

A patient receiving blood transfusion develops fever and chills. First action:

Troponin levels rise within how many hours of MI?

A diabetic patient has blood glucose of 45 mg/dL and is conscious. The nurse should:

Signs of hypoglycemia include all EXCEPT:

DKA is characterized by:

HHS (Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State) differs from DKA by:

Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency) causes:

Cushing's syndrome causes:

Thyroid storm is treated with:

Myxedema coma occurs in severe:

A post-thyroidectomy patient develops tingling around mouth and fingers. This suggests:

Positive Chvostek's sign indicates:

A patient with chest tube has continuous bubbling in water seal chamber. This indicates:

If a chest tube becomes disconnected, the nurse should FIRST:

A chest tube should be placed to:

A patient with NG tube complains of nausea. First action:

Before administering medication through NG tube, the nurse should:

A tracheostomy patient has increased secretions and decreased SpO2. Priority:

When suctioning a tracheostomy, maximum suction duration is:

A patient with SIADH would have:

Diabetes Insipidus causes:

Incentive spirometry is used to prevent:

TCDB (Turn, Cough, Deep Breathe) prevents:

Post-operative patient with sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia. Suspect:

Primary prevention of DVT includes:

A positive Homan's sign suggests:

Intermittent claudication is seen in:

Arterial ulcers vs. venous ulcers - arterial ulcers are:

'6 P's' of arterial occlusion include:

A patient with chronic venous insufficiency should:

Somogyi effect is:

Dawn phenomenon is:

Normal central venous pressure (CVP) is:

A patient with CVP of 15 mmHg likely has:

For accurate CVP reading, the transducer should be at:

A post-cardiac catheterization patient complains of leg numbness. First action:

After cardiac catheterization via femoral artery, patient should:

A patient develops hives during antibiotic infusion. First action:

Extravasation during IV infusion presents with:

A vesicant medication that extravasates can cause:

Phlebitis is characterized by:

Signs of air embolism include:

A nurse must prioritize four patients. Who should be seen FIRST?

Which task can be delegated to UAP (Unlicensed Assistive Personnel)?

The '5 Rights' of delegation include all EXCEPT:

A nurse discovers a medication error but patient is unharmed. The nurse should:

The nurse notes documentation in wrong patient's chart. Correct action:

Sterile field is contaminated when:

A 1-inch border around sterile drape is considered:

Subcutaneous injection angle is:

Intramuscular injection angle is:

Z-track technique is used for:

Intradermal injection is given at:

TB skin test (Mantoux) is read at:

A patient with terminal illness asks 'Am I going to die?' Best response:

According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief in order are:

A dying patient's family asks about expected signs. The nurse explains:

Post-mortem care includes all EXCEPT:

The nurse's MOST important role in end-of-life care is:

A patient in droplet precautions requires:

Airborne precautions require:

Contact precautions are used for:

Hand hygiene is required in all situations EXCEPT:

When removing PPE, the order is: